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Question 16 of 40
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Suppose a U.S.-based MNC maintains a vacation home for employees in the British countryside and the local price of this property is always moving together with the pound price of the U.S. dollar. As a result,
A. (ii) the firm is not exposed to currency risk even if the pound-dollar exchange rate fluctuates randomly.
B. None of these
C. Both (i) and (ii)
D. (i) whenever the pound depreciates against the dollar, the local currency price of this property goes up by the same proportion.
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8:43 AM
11/9/2022
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No Arbitrage Forward rate = Spot Rate * (1 + RD)/ (1 + RF)
where Rp is the interest rate in the domestic country, in this case United States
RF is the interest rate in the foreign country, in this case Germany
Thus, using this formula, the no arbitrage forward rate should be = 1.6 * (1 + 2%)/ (1 + 4%) = 1.6 * 1.02 / 1.04 = $1.57 approximately However, the actual forward rate = $1.58/€Hence, there is an arbitrage opportunity.
Suppose an arbitrager borrows 1,000,000 in the United States at 2%.
Thus, after one year, he has to pay back 1,000,000 * (1 + 2%) = $1,020,000He converts 1,000,000 into Euros at the spot exchage rate of $1.60/€.Thus he gets 1,000,000/1.6 = €625,000
The arbitrager now invests this money in Germany at 4%.
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At the same time, he enters into a forward contract to convert the money that he will get US Dollars at a forward rate of $1.58/€
After 1 year, he gets 625,000 * (1 + 4%) = €650,000
He converts this money into USD at the exchange rate of $1.58/€ (at which he entered th
Thus he gets 650,000 * 1.58 = $1,027,000
Amount he has to pay back = $1,000,000 * (1 + 2%) = $1,020,000
Net cash flow for the year through this arbitrage = $1,027,000 - $1,020,000 = $7,000
